National Labor Tribune January 3, 1915


Q' Would you say the Gentiles were represented in the Jewish nation on trial under the Law Covenant, in the same way that Adam's posterity were represented in him during his trial? Rom. 3.

Answer' No! The Jews were "a peculiar people," separated by God from the rest of the world. The Gentiles were not represented in them, else they would have had the same opportunities, responsibilities, and chastisements. The Law Covenant is called "the middle wall of partition" between Jew and Gentile, and was not broken down until Calvary (Eph. 2:12-19). The Apostle Paul's argument in Romans, chapters 1 to 5, is that while all were originally condemned in Adam there still persisted in the hearts of men sufficient knowledge of God's original law, written in the heart of Adam, to condemn each individually. But the Jews, having the law of Moses, were under a double condemnation, and thus to the original death sentence was added one of stripes (Amos 3:2; Lev. 26). The Jews are suffering some of these stripes now, till the fullness of the Gentiles be come in (Rom. 11:25). All the faithful, however, both Jews and Gentiles, were represented in Abraham, before circumcision and the giving of the Law (Rom. 4).

Q' Please explain Matt. 10:15: "Verily I say unto you, it shall be more tolerable for the land of Sodom and Gomorrah in the Day of Judgment, than for that city."

Answer' Comparing Scripture with Scripture we find about Sodom and Gomorrah: (a) Fire and brimstone destroyed all in one day (Luke 17:29); (b) they suffered the vengeance of eternal fire (Jude 7); (c) they are made an example to those that should thereafter live ungodly (2 Pet. 2:6); (d) they would have remained had they been given the same opportunity as Capernaum (Matt. 11:21-24); (e) they will have a more tolerable time in the day of judgment than Capernaum (Matt. 10:15); (f) they will return to their former estate (Eze. 16:55). How blind the reasoning that takes Jude 7 to mean eternal torment! It is clear the punishment of the people of Sodom and Gomorrah was: (1) Not final. They will be resurrected and have their share in the benefit of Christ's ransom work for all viz., an opportunity for life in the 1,000-year day of judgment when the full gospel light will flood the whole earth; (2) Typical of the second death a warning of that utter destruction (not preservation in fire) which will eventually overtake all who sin willfully against clear light and thus prove their unworthiness of life.

Q' Why did the Master first eat the Passover with his disciples, and then introduce the new rite, with bread and wine? Luke 22:14-20.

Answer' This was the last occasion on which the Passover could be celebrated. At the first Passover Israel's first-born were delivered from the angel of death, and on the following day the whole nation were set free from the Egyptian bondage. Jesus himself was shortly to take the place of the paschal lamb; his blood was to shield the Church of the first-born from death during the Gospel Age, and in the morning the opening of the new Age the whole world were to be liberated from the bondage of sin and Satan. Jesus put into the hands of his disciples symbols of his own body and blood and enjoined that instead of eating the typical Lamb, they were now to partake of the anti-typical, and to do this in remembrance of him. It is only "till he come" that this memorial is to be kept. When he has come, then the other part of the type will be fulfilled the world will be delivered and Satan and his agents (Pharaoh and his host) will be destroyed. It was therefore appropriate that Jesus should have such strong desire to eat this supper. The type had now ceased and the great anti-type was due to begin.

Q' Our Lord's words, "For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself," seem to imply that the Son had immortal life while on earth! How then could he really die to redeem the race, as some claim he did?

Answer' In Scripture, events future or in process are often spoken of as already accomplished, because seen by the eye of faith from the Divine standpoint. Conf. Gen. 17:4 with Gen. 17:5, and Deut. 4:7, 8; John 17:4 with John 19:30. In Luke 2:11 Jesus is called a Savior, and the Anointed Lord, whereas he was not anointed until thirty years later, and could not actually save until, as the Lamb of God, he was [HGL680] slain and resurrected. So then, at this time, Christ was not immortal, but he had been begotten to that life by the Holy Spirit, and thus on Calvary "he poured out his soul unto death," in full assurance of a perfect resurrection or birth, on the third day. If already inherently immortal, he could not die, nor would he have required the mighty power of God to raise him up (1 Cor. 15; Eph. 1:19-22). So with the Christian; he is said to have everlasting life now (John 5:24; 6:47); and to be risen with Christ (Col. 3:1), yet he dies, and these things only become actual in the resurrection at the last day (John 5:29; 6:40; Tit. 1:1-2; Col. 3:4).

Q' How many times did our Lord show himself in the same body as he had when he showed himself to Thomas in the upper room?

Answer' There is no reason to suppose that Jesus ever showed himself twice in the same body after his resurrection. He laid aside his old human body in death and as his human nature is the corresponding price for Adam's forfeited life and thus the ransom for the world, he will never take it back again. In order to convince his disciples that he who was dead was again alive, it was necessary for him to manifest himself to them by some means. This he did as the angels have done by using a human body for the few moments of his different talks with them. Lest they should get the impression that he was still a human being he used a different body each time, thus proving to them that none of the bodies they saw were really his. "Now the Lord is that spirit" (2 Cor. 3:17) but he assures us "a spirit hath not flesh and blood as ye see me have" (Luke 24:39). "Flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor. 15:50); and it is therefore necessary that all who will share in the Divine nature must lay aside the human. We must not only suffer with him but we must also be dead with him if we would reign with him (2 Tim. 2:12).

Q' Did Paul preach a full Gospel?

Answer' Some who have noticed that the Apostle Paul had nothing whatever to say about torments in reservation for the wicked after death have concluded that he did not preach a full Gospel. He certainly never preached what in recent years has been termed a Gospel sermon. Instead he preached a God of love the God of the Bible. He himself assures us that he did preach the entire Gospel saying, "I have not shunned to declare unto you all the counsel of God" (Acts 20:27). The Gospel that he preached was the same Gospel that God himself preached to Abraham saying, "In thee shall all nations be blessed" (Gal. 3:8). Gospel means good tidings. It is surely good tidings that a blessing for each member of the human race awaits the completion of the selection of Abraham's seed. The inspiring hope of God's Word is that "if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise" (Gal. 3:29). The seed is to be not only fleshly, as were Isaac and Jacob, but also spiritual, heavenly. "Thy seed shall be as the stars of heaven and as the sands of the sea shore" (Gen. 22:17), seems to be an allusion to the two seeds. By this division of the seed into two parts there will be not only the invisible and powerful spirit rulers but also earthly representatives and examples for the world. The Church will be invisible during the entire period of its regal power but those who obtained a good report through faith before the High Calling was opened up are to be "princes in all the earth," visible representatives of the perfection which shall be the reward of the obedient during the thousand year judgment day. One prophet describing his resurrection vigor said that his flesh would be "fresher than a child's" (Job 33:25).

Q' Kindly give us your thought on Mark 10:1-12, especially the portion regarding husband and wife leaving relatives and cleaving to each other.

Answer' Our Lord was not here stating a new thing but merely repeating the instruction that had been given the human race when God placed our first parents in the Garden of Eden. Almost the same words were used in Gen. 2:24. Evidently the meaning is just what is stated in the words. We find that a still deeper meaning is intended, however, in addition to this primary application. The Apostle Paul explains that as the Church is espoused to Christ as a chaste virgin (2 Cor. 11:2), she must needs keep herself pure and unspotted from the world if her heavenly bridegroom will ever acknowledge and receive her. If she were to manifest love for the world and its institutions to such an extent that she would take them into her life, should enter into worldly alliances, accept anyone or any system as her lord and master, she would prove herself unfaithful to her heavenly bridegroom. When these faithful ones have made themselves ready, the marriage will take place (Rev. 19:7-9). The bride will be glorious in person, in adornment and in office (Psa. 45:13), and associated with her glorified Lord she will exercise queenly powers, inviting all the sin-cursed race to turn from their allegiance to the prince of this present world and accept the blessing of life provided by her bridegroom. Now the spirit of this world and its ruler are drawing men deeper and deeper into degradation, farther from the likeness of God; then "the spirit and the bride will say, come. And let him that heareth say, come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely" (Rev. 22:17). Under the leadership of the heavenly hosts the World will progress up the "highway of holiness" and will find the way so plain that the weakest will easily walk therein (Isa. 35:8-10).

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